Question Bank

The speed of light in vacuum is taken as unity. If light takes 6 min 40 s to reach the Earth from the Sun, the distance between the Sun and the Earth in new unit is

Match List I with List II: List I — A. Young's Modulus, B. Compressibility, C. Bulk Modulus, D. Poisson's Ratio. List II — I. Δd/ΔL·(L/d), II. FL/[A(ΔL)], III. −(1/ΔP)(ΔV/V), IV. −P(V/ΔV). Choose the correct answer from the options given below

The angular speed of a flywheel is increased from 600 rpm to 1200 rpm in 10 s. Number of revolutions completed

A resistor connected to a battery of 12 V emf and internal resistance 2 Ω. Current 0.6 A. Terminal voltage

A flask contains argon and chlorine in ratio 2:1 by mass at 27°C. Ratio of rms speed of the two gases (Ar mass 40, Cl mass 70)

Match List I with List II: List I — A. E=hν, B. Diffraction and Interference, C. λ=h/p, D. Compton effect. List II — I. de Broglie wavelength, II. Particle nature of light, III. Wave nature of light, IV. Energy of photon. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Box of mass 15 kg on stationary trolley, coefficient of static friction 0.12. Max acceleration trolley can have without box sliding (g=10)

Work done to raise mass m from Earth's surface to height = Earth's radius R

Metallic cube, mass 5.580 kg, side measured to 9.0 cm. Density (sig figs) = X×10³ kg/m³, X =

v–t plots for a ball thrown up and falling back — which plot(s) correct

Young's double slit: intensity at path difference λ is K units. Intensity at path difference λ/3

AC circuit: R=1kΩ, C=0.1μF, L=1mH in series. Resonance frequency ≈

In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe. Statement A: As there is no gain or loss of energy, these phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy. Statement B: Diffraction and interference are characteristics exhibited only by light waves. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Travelling wave y(x,t)=2.0cos2π(10t−0.0080x+0.35). Phase difference between two points 0.5 m apart

Two uncharged 200 pF capacitors; one charged to 100V then connected to the other. Energy lost

Vernier calliper: 20 VSD = 16 MSD (1 mm div). Least count

Square wire loop ABCD, total resistance 4Ω, 2Ω resistor between B–D, 2V battery across A–C. Current I

Room heater rated 400 W, 220 V. If supply drops to 200 V, power consumed ≈

100-turn circular coil radius 5 cm, B=3.14×10⁻³ T at centre. Current & magnetic moment

Rectangular loop 8cm×3cm with a cut moves out of field 0.3T at 2 cm/s normal to shorter side. EMF

Four statements are given (A is mass number): A. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A^1/3. B. The volume of a nucleus is proportional to A. C. The difference in mass of an atom and its nucleus is called the mass defect. D. The difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is called the mass defect. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Simple pendulum: 30 oscillations in 60 s (π²=9.8, g=9.8). Length L

Heater supplies heat at 100 W; system does work at 75 J/s. Rate internal energy increases

Thin wire length L, linear density m, bent into ring in x-y plane, centre C. Moment of inertia about axis yy′

Galvanometer 100Ω, full-scale 1 mA → ammeter 0–10A. Shunt required

Peak AC current 5A, frequency 60Hz. Time from zero to peak

Which of the following statements are correct? A. Inside a conductor, the electrostatic field is zero. B. Electric field at the surface of a charged conductor does not depend on its surface charge density. C. The interior of a charged conductor can have no excess charge in the static situation. D. At the surface of a charged conductor, the electrostatic field must be normal to the surface at every point. E. The electrostatic potential is zero everywhere inside a charged conductor. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Metal work function 6.6 eV. Which incident wavelength does NOT cause photoelectric effect

Concave lens, ray parallel to principal axis after refraction

Submarine withstands 100 atm absolute. Max depth (ρ=1000, 1atm=1×10⁵Pa, g=10)

Match List I with List II: List I (Electromagnetic wave) — A. Microwave, B. Visible light, C. Gamma rays, D. Infra-red rays. List II (Production) — I. Electrons in atoms emit light when they move to a lower energy level, II. Radioactive decay of nucleus, III. Vibration of atoms and molecules, IV. Klystron valve or magnetron valve. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Match List I with List II: List I (Transition metal/compound/complex) — A. V2O5, B. Fe, C. PdCl2, D. Ni complex. List II (Catalytic Role) — I. Preparation of ammonia from N2/H2 mixture, II. Polymerisation of alkynes, III. Preparation of H2SO4 and SO2, IV. Oxidation of ethyne to ethanal. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Reaction 2A(g)+B(g)→2D(g); given ΔU°=−10 kJ/mol, ΔS°=−44 J/K at 298K. ΔG° / spontaneity (R=8.31 J/mol·K)

Bi³⁺ detected via BiO(OH)(s) precipitate. BiO(OH)(s) ⇌ BiO⁺(aq)+OH⁻(aq), Kw=4×10⁻¹⁰. Find pH at 298K (log2=0.3010)

Pair of molecules that are metamers

Match List I with List II: List I (Complex) — A. [Pt(NH3)2Cl2], B. [Co(en)3]3+, C. [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2, D. [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3. List II (Type of isomerism) — I. Optical, II. Solvate, III. Geometrical, IV. Linkage. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Match List I with List II: List I (Order of reaction) — A. Zero order, B. First order, C. Second order, D. Third order. List II (Unit of rate constant) — I. mol⁻¹ L s⁻¹, II. mol⁻² L² s⁻¹, III. s⁻¹, IV. mol L⁻¹ s⁻¹. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

IUPAC name of CH₃–CH₂–CH–CH₂–CH–CH₂–CH₃ (branches CH₂CH₃ and CH₃CH₂ at C3,C5)

Bulb rated 150W, 8% energy → light, photon energy 4.42×10⁻¹⁹J. Photons emitted per second

Methane + steam at 1273K, Ni catalyst forms

Match List I with List II: List I — A. C2H4, B. C2H2, C. CH4, D. NH3. List II — I. 3σ bonds and 2π bonds, II. 3σ bonds and one lone pair, III. 4σ bonds, IV. 5σ bonds and 1π bond. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Two reactions give same foul-smelling product Z (isocyanide test). X and Z respectively

Hydrogen atoms in 5.4 g urea (molar mass 60, N_A=6.022×10²³)

Identify the incorrect statement from the following

Ambidentate ligand

Increasing metallic character order of Na, Be, P, Mg, Si

CH₃CH₂CH₂–OH + PCl₅ → CH₃CH₂CH₂Cl + X + HCl; alc.KOH then HBr/peroxide → Z. X and Z

Match List I with List II: List I (Complex/ion) — A. [PtCl2(NH3)2], B. [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, C. [NiCl4]2-, D. [Fe(CO)5]. List II (Shape/geometry) — I. Octahedral, II. Trigonal bipyramidal, III. Square planar, IV. Tetrahedral. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Functional group identified via phthalein dye test

Benzene + CH₃Cl/anhyd.AlCl₃ → W; dil.HNO₃+dil.H₂SO₄(warm) → X+Y. Method to separate X,Y

Identify the correct statements: A. The molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid (Molar mass: 60 g/mol) in 75 g of benzene solution is 0.556 m. B. The molarity of a solution containing 5 g of NaOH (molar mass: 40 g/mol) in 450 mL of solution is 0.278 M at 298 K. C. Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water. D. The solubility of gas increases with decrease in pressure. E. For a binary mixture of A and B, the number of moles of A and B are nA and nB respectively. The mole fraction of B will be xB = nA/(nA+nB) [as printed in source]. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Lassaigne's test converts elements from

CuSO₄ electrolysed 10 min at 1.5 A. Mass Cu deposited (Cu=63, F=96487)

Process at T(K): 500 J absorbed, 200 J work done by system. ΔU

Reaction R→Product, [R] vs t plot is a straight line with negative slope (k=−slope). Order of reaction

Correct statement about ClF₃ geometry

Salt + dilute H₂SO₄ → colourless vapours smelling of vinegar, turn blue litmus red. Anion

Buffer at 298K, equal [X⁻] and [HX], Kb for X⁻ = 10⁻¹⁰. pH

Half-cell emf: Pt|H₂(2atm)|HCl(0.02M), E°=0V (given 2.303RT/F=0.059, log2=0.3010)

Spin-only magnetic moment of Ti²⁺ (3d²)

Identify the incorrect statement from the following

Formal charges on O atoms (numbered 2,1,3) in ozone-like structure

Phenolphthalein titration of NaOH vs standard oxalic acid — colour change near equivalence point

1 dm³ CO₂ over hot coke → gas mixture 1.4 dm³ at STP. Composition

C₂H₆ →(Cl₂,UV) X(monochlorinated) →(NH₃) Y →(i.NaNO₂/HCl ii.H₂O) Z. Major product Z

First-order rate constant: ln k = 14.34 − 1.25×10⁴/T. Activation energy in kcal/mol (R=1.987 cal/mol·K)

Reaction where Kp ≠ Kc

Identify the incorrect statement from the following

Chloroform+acetone → negative deviation from Raoult's law due to

Benzene + 6Cl₂ (anhyd. AlCl₃, dark/cold) → X; benzene + 3Cl₂ (UV, 500K) → Y. Cl atoms in X and Y respectively

Root hairs in angiosperms arise from

Ovules NOT enclosed by ovary wall (remain exposed)

In lac operon, z gene codes for

Exploring molecular/genetic/species-level diversity for economically important products

Match List I with List II: List I — A. Genetically modified organism, B. Thermostable DNA polymerase, C. Ti plasmid, D. pBR322. List II — I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens, II. Bt cotton, III. Thermus aquaticus, IV. Escherichia coli. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Match List I with List II: List I — A. Productivity, B. Net primary productivity, C. Gross primary productivity, D. Secondary productivity. List II — I. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses, II. Rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers, III. Rate of biomass production, IV. Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Sixth mass extinction (in progress) differs from previous 5 how

Alpha-helix found in which level of protein structure

Main function of bulliform cells in grasses

Correct PCR cycle sequence

Match List I with List II: List I (Phase of cell cycle) — A. G1 phase, B. S phase, C. G2 Phase, D. M phase. List II (Activity) — I. Actual cell division occurs, II. Cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA, III. Synthesis of DNA occurs and the amount of DNA per cell doubles, IV. Proteins are synthesized while cell growth continues. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Which of the following statements are correct? A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss. B. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans. C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped population growth of cichlid fish in the lake. D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species. E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit? A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions: promoter, structural gene and terminator. B. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end of the structural gene. C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase. D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands. E. The terminator is located towards the 3'-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

NOT true about binomial nomenclature

Match List I with List II: List I — A. Decomposition, B. Detritus, C. Mineralisation, D. Humification. List II — I. Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous substance, II. Release of inorganic nutrients by the activity of microbes in soil, III. Breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances, IV. Dead remains of plants and animals including fecal matter. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

2(C₅₁H₉₈O₆)+145O₂→102CO₂+98H₂O+energy. Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of this biomolecule

Match List I with List II: List I — A. Incomplete dominance, B. Co-dominance, C. Pleiotropy, D. Polygenic inheritance. List II — I. Human skin colour, II. Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum sp., III. Phenylketonuria disease in humans, IV. ABO blood groups. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence: A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases. B. Hybridisation using a labelled VNTR probe. C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes. D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography. E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix? A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer. B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins. C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues - lysine and arginine. D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome. E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Find the incorrect statement(s) about photosynthesis from the following: A. The water splitting complex is associated with PS I. B. C4 plants use the C3 pathway as the main biosynthetic pathway of CO2 fixation. C. In C4 plants, photorespiration does not occur. D. C3 plants exhibit 'Kranz' anatomy. E. ATP synthesis in chloroplast occurs through chemiosmosis. Choose the answer from the options given below

NOT a characteristic of plant cells in elongation phase

Match List I with List II: List I (Growth Regulator) — A. 2,4-D, B. GA3, C. Kinetin, D. ABA. List II (Function/Effect) — I. Brewing industry, II. Stimulation of stomatal closure, III. Herbicide, IV. Nutrient mobilisation. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Enzyme for carboxylation in Calvin cycle

ATP & NADPH needed for one glucose via Calvin pathway

In-situ conservation method

Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases? A. They are called molecular scissors. B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in E. coli. C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites. D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments. E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences. Choose the answer from the options given below

In racemose inflorescence

Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis: A. Microspore tetrads, B. Sporogenous tissue, C. Pollen grains, D. Pollen mother cells. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Identify the correct statements about biomolecules. A. Lipids are generally water soluble. B. Proteins are polypeptides. C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars. D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines. E. Almost all enzymes are proteins. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Which of the following statements are true with reference to the sex-determination in honeybees? A. An offspring formed from the union of a sperm and an egg, develops as a female (queen or worker). B. An unfertilized egg develops as a male by parthenogenesis. C. A male has half the number of chromosomes than that of a female. D. Males produce sperms by meiosis. E. Honeybees have a haplodiploid sex-determination system. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Heterophyllous development in response to environment is example of

Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids? A. They are substituted methanes. B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid. C. Valine is a neutral amino acid. D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

"The Evil Quartet" of biodiversity loss includes

Triploid cell

Pollination type bringing genetically different pollen to stigma

Match List I with List II: List I (Placentation) — A. Marginal, B. Axile, C. Parietal, D. Basal. List II (Example) — I. Mustard, II. Pea, III. Marigold, IV. Lemon. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

The main criteria used for Five Kingdom Classification proposed By R.H. Whittaker (1969) included: A. Cell structure, B. Body organization, C. Presence of flagellum, D. Reproduction, E. Phylogenetic relationships. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Match List I with List II: List I — A. Trypsin, B. Morphine, C. Concanavalin A, D. Collagen. List II — I. Intercellular ground substance, II. Lectin, III. Enzyme, IV. Alkaloid. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation and visualization? A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors. B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis. C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light. D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Disorder from Glu→Val substitution at position 6 of beta-globin

Match List I with List II: List I — A. Cortisol, B. Aldosterone, C. Cholecystokinin, D. Progesterone. List II — I. Stimulates the formation of alveoli in mammary glands, II. Produces anti-inflammatory reactions, III. Stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubule, IV. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Arrange the following events occurring in Renin-Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order: A. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular filtration rate. B. Reabsorption of Na+ and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone. C. Fall in Glomerular filtration rate. D. Vasoconstriction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone. E. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I, followed by Angiotensin II. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

In humans, respiration occurs in the following steps. Arrange these steps in the correct order. A. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues. B. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane. C. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released out. D. Cellular respiration. E. Transport of gases by the blood. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Foreign DNA insertion at BamHI site in pBR322 causes loss of resistance to

Enzyme reaction X-C≡C-Y →(E)→ X-Y+C≡C (product). Enzyme class E

Neurotransmitter receptors present on

Probability of 'O' blood-group child, parents heterozygous for A and B respectively

Match List I with List II: List I (Respiratory Volume) — A. ERV (Expiratory Reserve Volume), B. RV (Residual Volume), C. IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume), D. TV (Tidal Volume). List II (Capacity in mL) — I. 2500-3000 mL, II. 500 mL, III. 1000-1100 mL, IV. 1100-1200 mL. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

NOT example of convergent evolution

Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of: A. Bulging eyes. B. Vocal sacs. C. Webbed digits in feet. D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs. E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Fish-like animal: cartilage endoskeleton, ectoparasitic sucking mouth on fish skin, no paired fins/scales, 7 gill-slit pairs. Species

Match List I with List II with respect to chronology of evolution of life forms: List I — A. About 65 mya, B. About 500 mya, C. About 350 mya, D. About 320 mya. List II — I. Jawless fish probably evolved, II. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth, III. Seaweeds and few plants probably existed, IV. Invertebrates were formed and became active. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Match List I and List II: List I — A. Progestasert, B. Multiload 375, C. Diaphragm, D. Saheli. List II — I. Barrier made of rubber used by females, II. Oral contraceptive, III. Hormone releasing IUD, IV. Copper releasing IUD. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

WBC count 8000/cu mm — eosinophil & lymphocyte counts approx

Match List I with List II: List I (Drug) — A. Nicotine, B. Morphine, C. Heroin, D. Cocaine. List II (Effect) — I. Causes sense of euphoria and increased energy, II. Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines into blood circulation, III. Effective sedative and painkiller, IV. A depressant; slows down body function. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

α-1-antitrypsin (from transgenic animals) used to treat

Fishes belonging to class Osteichthyes

Select the incorrect statements from the following: A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete. B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms. C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes. D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in the class Chondrichthyes. E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature. Choose the answer from the options given below

Non-membrane bound organelle in both prokaryotes & eukaryotes

Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth equation

Select the incorrect statement with reference to Rh grouping. A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with Rh−ve blood and mother with Rh+ve blood. B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings. C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched. D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is Rh−ve and the foetus is Rh+ve. E. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child. Choose the answer from the options given below

Match List I with List II: List I (Bioactive molecules) — A. Streptokinase, B. Statins, C. Lipases, D. Cyclosporin A. List II (Importance) — I. Immunosuppressive agent, II. Removal of clots from the blood vessels, III. Blood cholesterol-lowering agent, IV. Detergent formulations. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Sixth mutant codon of beta-globin gene (Hb polymerization, RBC shape change)

Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction. A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre. B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of Ca++ into sarcoplasm. C. Increase in Ca++ inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges. D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge. E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton? A. Human skull is monocondylic. B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint. C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven. D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic. E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions statements to produce sperms. Select the correct from the following: A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division. B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes. C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids. D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis. E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

JGA (Juxtaglomerular Apparatus) formed by modifications in

Example of sexual deceit

Choose the correct statements regarding frog's anatomy: A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine. B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain. C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs. D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes. E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy: List I — A. The foetus movement starts and hair appears on the head, B. The foetus develops limbs and digits, C. The foetus develops external genital organs, D. The foetus body is covered with fine hair; eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed. List II — I. 24 weeks of pregnancy, II. 20 weeks of pregnancy, III. 8 weeks of pregnancy, IV. 12 weeks of pregnancy. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Grasshopper species: some members 23 chromosomes, some 24. The 23- and 24-chromosome members are respectively

Animal where haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes

Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete, from outer to inner side: A. Zona pellucida, B. Perivitelline space, C. Corona radiata, D. Plasma membrane of ovum. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Bt toxin genes controlling cotton bollworm and corn borer respectively

Ecological pyramids generally inverted for

Correct statement re: GIFT for infertility

Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions. A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface. C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA. D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton. E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell. A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein. B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer. C. Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes. D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium. E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is

Flightless bird with paddle-like forelimbs for swimming

Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species. A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed. B. Both species benefit in mutualism. C. Both species benefit in commensalism. D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other is harmed. E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected. Choose the correct answer from the options given below